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If $A$ and $B$ an two events such that $P(A \cup B)=\frac{5}{6} \quad P(A \cap B)=\frac{1}{3}$ and $P(\bar{B})=\frac{1}{3}$, then $P(A)=$
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The correct answer is:
$\frac{1}{2}$
$P(A)=P(A \cap B)+P(A \cup B)-P(B)$
$=\frac{1}{3}+\frac{5}{6}-\frac{2}{3}=\frac{3}{6}=\frac{1}{2}$.
$=\frac{1}{3}+\frac{5}{6}-\frac{2}{3}=\frac{3}{6}=\frac{1}{2}$.
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