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Question: Answered & Verified by Expert
If A and $\mathrm{B}$ are two events such that $\mathrm{P}(\mathrm{A}) \neq 0$ and $\mathrm{P}(\mathrm{B}) \neq 1$, then $P\left(\frac{\bar{A}}{\bar{B}}\right)=$
MathematicsProbability
Options:
  • A
    $1-P\left(\frac{A}{B}\right)$
  • B
    $1-\mathrm{P}\left(\frac{\overline{\mathrm{A}}}{\mathrm{B}}\right)$
  • C
    $\frac{1-\mathrm{P}(\mathrm{A} \cup \mathrm{B})}{\mathrm{P}(\overline{\mathrm{B}})}$
  • D
    $\frac{\mathrm{P}(\overline{\mathrm{A}})}{\mathrm{P}(\mathrm{B})}$
Solution:
2139 Upvotes Verified Answer
The correct answer is:
$\frac{1-\mathrm{P}(\mathrm{A} \cup \mathrm{B})}{\mathrm{P}(\overline{\mathrm{B}})}$
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