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Question: Answered & Verified by Expert
If $A=\left[\begin{array}{cc}\cos \alpha & \sin \alpha \\ -\sin \alpha & \cos \alpha\end{array}\right]$ and $A$ adj $A=\left[\begin{array}{ll}k & 0 \\ 0 & k\end{array}\right]$,then $k$ is equal to
MathematicsMatricesJEE Main
Options:
  • A $0$
  • B $1$
  • C $\sin \alpha \cos \alpha$
  • D $\cos 2 \alpha$
Solution:
1856 Upvotes Verified Answer
The correct answer is: $1$
\(\begin{aligned}
& A=\left[\begin{array}{cc}
\cos \theta & \sin \theta \\
-\sin \theta & \cos \theta
\end{array}\right] \\
& \therefore|A|=\left|\begin{array}{cc}
\cos \theta & \sin \theta \\
-\sin \theta & \cos \theta
\end{array}\right|=\cos ^2 \theta+\sin ^2 \theta=1 \neq 0
\end{aligned}\)
Thus, \(A^{-1}\) exists.
Now,
\(\begin{aligned}
& \Rightarrow A^{-1}=\operatorname{adj} A \\
& \Rightarrow A A^{-1}=\operatorname{Aadj} A \\
& \Rightarrow A A^{-1}=\left[\begin{array}{ll}
k & 0 \\
0 & k
\end{array}\right] \\
& \Rightarrow\left[\begin{array}{ll}
1 & 0 \\
0 & 1
\end{array}\right]=\left[\begin{array}{ll}
k & 0 \\
0 & k
\end{array}\right]\left[\because A A^{-1}=I\right] \\
& \Rightarrow k=1
\end{aligned}\)

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