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Question: Answered & Verified by Expert
If \( A=\left[\begin{array}{cc}0 & 1 \\ 1 & 0\end{array}\right] \), then \( A^{2} \) equal to
MathematicsIndefinite IntegrationKCETKCET 2015
Options:
  • A \( \left[\begin{array}{ll}0 & 1 \\ 1 & 0\end{array}\right] \)
  • B \( \left[\begin{array}{ll}1 & 0 \\ 1 & 0\end{array}\right] \)
  • C \( \left[\begin{array}{ll}1 & 0 \\ 0 & 1\end{array}\right] \)
  • D \( \left[\begin{array}{ll}0 & 1 \\ 0 & 1\end{array}\right] \)
Solution:
1356 Upvotes Verified Answer
The correct answer is: \( \left[\begin{array}{ll}1 & 0 \\ 0 & 1\end{array}\right] \)
Given that \( A=\left[\begin{array}{ll}0 & 1 \\ 1 & 0\end{array}\right] \)
Now, \( A \cdot A=A^{2}=\left[\begin{array}{ll}0 & 1 \\ 1 & 0\end{array}\right]\left[\begin{array}{ll}0 & 1 \\ 1 & 0\end{array}\right] \)
\( =\left[\begin{array}{ll}0+1 & 0+0 \\ 0+0 & 1+0\end{array}\right]=\left[\begin{array}{ll}1 & 0 \\ 0 & 1\end{array}\right] \)
Therefore \( A^{2}=I \)

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