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Question: Answered & Verified by Expert
If cos-1x-x22+x34-+sin-1x2-x42+x64-=π2 for 0<x<2, then x is equal to
MathematicsInverse Trigonometric FunctionsJEE Main
Solution:
2348 Upvotes Verified Answer
The correct answer is: 1
Since, sin-1x+cos-1x=π2 for x1.
x-x22+x34-=x2-x42+x64-
x1+x2=x21+x220<x<2
x2+x=x22+x22x+x3=2x2+x3
x2=xx=0,1
But x2=x0,x=1.

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