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Question: Answered & Verified by Expert
If $f$ is defined by $f(x)=\left\{\begin{array}{cc}\frac{1-\cos a x}{x \sin x}, $(x \neq 0)$ \frac{1}{2} \quad,(x=0)\end{array}\right.$ and $f$ is continuous at $x=0$, then $a^2=$
MathematicsContinuity and DifferentiabilityAP EAMCETAP EAMCET 2017 (25 Apr Shift 2)
Options:
  • A $1$
  • B $2$
  • C $3$
  • D $4$
Solution:
1906 Upvotes Verified Answer
The correct answer is: $1$
No solution. Refer to answer key.

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