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Question: Answered & Verified by Expert
If \(f(t)=\frac{1-t}{1+t}\), then \(f^{\prime}(1 / t)\) is equal to
MathematicsMathematical ReasoningBITSATBITSAT 2009
Options:
  • A \(\frac{1}{(1+t)^2}\)
  • B \(\frac{1}{(t-1)^2}\)
  • C \(\frac{-2 t^2}{(t+1)^2}\)
  • D \(\frac{2}{(t-1)^2}\)
Solution:
1056 Upvotes Verified Answer
The correct answer is: \(\frac{-2 t^2}{(t+1)^2}\)
\(\begin{aligned}
& f^{\prime}(t)=\frac{d}{d t}\left[\frac{1-t}{1+t}\right]=\frac{(1+t)(-1)-(1-t) \times(1)}{(1+t)^2} \\
& =\frac{-1-t-1+t}{(1+t)^2}=\frac{-2}{(1+t)^2}
\end{aligned}\)
\(f^{\prime}[1 / t]=\frac{-2}{\left(1+\frac{1}{t}\right)^2}=\frac{-2 t^2}{(t+1)^2}\)

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