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Question: Answered & Verified by Expert
If \(f(x)\) is a quadratic in \(x\), then \(\int_0^1 f(x) d x\) is equal to
MathematicsDefinite IntegrationVITEEEVITEEE 2023
Options:
  • A \(\frac{1}{6}\left[\mathrm{f}(0)+4 \mathrm{f}\left(\frac{1}{2}\right)+\mathrm{f}(1)\right]\)
  • B \(\frac{1}{6}\left[4 \mathrm{f}(0)+\mathrm{f}\left(\frac{1}{2}\right)+\mathrm{f}(1)\right]\)
  • C \(\frac{1}{6}\left[\mathrm{f}(0)+\mathrm{f}\left(\frac{1}{2}\right)+4(1)\right]\)
  • D \(\frac{1}{6}\left[f(0)+f\left(\frac{1}{2}\right)+f(1)\right]\)
Solution:
1471 Upvotes Verified Answer
The correct answer is: \(\frac{1}{6}\left[\mathrm{f}(0)+4 \mathrm{f}\left(\frac{1}{2}\right)+\mathrm{f}(1)\right]\)
If \(f(x)=a x^2+b x+c\),
\(\begin{aligned}
& \int_0^1 f(x) d x=\frac{1}{6}(2 a+3 b+6 c) \\
& f(0)=c, f\left(\frac{1}{2}\right)=\frac{a}{4}+\frac{b}{2}+c, f(1)=a+b+c \\
& \Rightarrow f(0)+4 f\left(\frac{1}{2}\right)+f(1)=2 a+3 b+6 c
\end{aligned}\)

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