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Question: Answered & Verified by Expert
If \(f(x)=e^x ; g(x)=\ln (x)\) for all \(x \in[1, \infty)\), then \(f \circ g\) is ____
MathematicsFunctionsAP EAMCETAP EAMCET 2020 (21 Sep Shift 1)
Options:
  • A A one-one function
  • B An onto function
  • C Not a function
  • D Bijective
Solution:
2719 Upvotes Verified Answer
The correct answer is: Bijective
For \(x \in[1, \infty), f(x)=e^x\) and \(g(x)=\ln x\)
\(\therefore(f \circ g)(x)=e^{\ln x}=x, x \in[1, \infty)\) is a bijective function.
Hence, option (d) is correct.

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