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Question: Answered & Verified by Expert
If $m \sin ^{-1} x=\log _{e} y$, then $\left(1-x^{2}\right) y^{\prime \prime}-x y^{\prime}$ is equal to
MathematicsDifferential EquationsKCETKCET 2012
Options:
  • A $\mathrm{m}^{2} y$
  • B $-m^{2} y$
  • C $2 \mathrm{y}$
  • D $-2 y$
Solution:
1204 Upvotes Verified Answer
The correct answer is: $\mathrm{m}^{2} y$
$$
\begin{aligned}
&\text { Given, } \mathrm{m} \sin ^{-1} \mathrm{x}=\log _{\mathrm{e}} \mathrm{y} \\
&\Rightarrow \quad \mathrm{y}=\mathrm{e}^{\mathrm{m} \sin ^{-1} \mathrm{x}}
\end{aligned}
$$
On differentiating w.r.t. $x$, we get
$y^{\prime}=e^{m \sin ^{-1} x} \times \frac{m}{\sqrt{1-x^{2}}}$
$\Rightarrow \sqrt{1-\mathrm{x}^{2}} \cdot \mathrm{y}^{\prime}=\mathrm{my}$
On squaring both sides, we get
$$
\left(1-x^{2}\right) y^{\prime 2}=m^{2} y^{2}
$$
Again differentiating, we get
$$
\begin{aligned}
&\left(1-x^{2}\right) 2 y^{\prime} \times y^{\prime \prime}+y^{\prime 2}(-2 x)=m^{2} \cdot 2 y y^{\prime} \\
\therefore \quad &\left(1-x^{2}\right) y^{\prime \prime}-x y^{\prime}=m^{2} y
\end{aligned}
$$

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