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If sample A contains 100 observations $101,102, \ldots$ 200 and sample B contains 100 obsections $151,152,$ \ldots 250, then ratio of variance $\mathrm{v}_{\mathrm{A}} / \mathrm{v}_{\mathrm{B}}=$
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$\because \quad \delta_{\mathrm{x}}^{2}=\frac{\Sigma \mathrm{d}^{2} \mathrm{i}}{\mathrm{n}}$
But both $A$ and $B$ have 100 observations, then both the sample $A$ and $B$ have same standard deviation and the same variance.
Hence, $\frac{\mathrm{V}_{\mathrm{A}}}{\mathrm{V}_{\mathrm{B}}}=1$
But both $A$ and $B$ have 100 observations, then both the sample $A$ and $B$ have same standard deviation and the same variance.
Hence, $\frac{\mathrm{V}_{\mathrm{A}}}{\mathrm{V}_{\mathrm{B}}}=1$
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