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Question: Answered & Verified by Expert
If the variance of observations $x_1, x_2, \ldots \ldots . x_n$ is $\sigma^2$, then the variance of $a x_1, a x_2 \ldots \ldots ., a x_n, \alpha \neq 0$ is
MathematicsStatisticsJEE Main
Options:
  • A $\sigma^2$
  • B $a \sigma^2$
  • C $a^2 \sigma^2$
  • D $\frac{\sigma^2}{a^2}$
Solution:
1088 Upvotes Verified Answer
The correct answer is: $a^2 \sigma^2$
Let $\bar{x}$ be the mean of $x_1, x_2, x_3, \cdots, x_n$ and a be a nonzero real number.
Then, $\bar{x}=\frac{1}{n}\left(x_1+x_2+x_3+\cdots+x_n\right)$
Let $y_i=a x_i$ for each $i=1,2,3, \ldots, n$. Then,
$\begin{aligned} & \bar{y}=\frac{1}{n}\left(y_1+y_2+y_3+\cdots+y_n\right) \\ & =\frac{1}{n}\left(a x_1+a x_2+a x_3+\cdots+a x_n\right)=\text { a. } \frac{1}{n}\left(x_1+x_2+x_3+\cdots x_n\right)=a \bar{x}\end{aligned}$
Thus, $\bar{y}=a \bar{x}$
Now, the variance of new observations is given by
variance $(\mathrm{y})=\sigma_1^2$
$=\frac{1}{n} \sum_{i=1}^n\left(y_i-\bar{y}\right)^2$
$=\frac{1}{n} \sum_{i=1}^n\left(a x_i-a \bar{x}\right)^2\left[\because \quad y_i=a x_i\right.$ for each $i$ and $\left.\bar{y}=a \bar{x}\right]$
$=a^2 \cdot \frac{1}{n} \cdot \sum_{\mathrm{i}=1}^{\mathrm{n}}\left(\mathrm{x}_{\mathrm{i}}-\overline{\mathrm{x}}\right)^2$
$\begin{aligned} & =\mathrm{a}^2 .\{\text { variance }(\mathrm{x})\}=\mathrm{a}^2 \sigma^2 \\ & \therefore \text { new variance }=\mathrm{a}^2 \sigma^2 \\ & \text { Remark } \sigma_1=\sqrt{\mathrm{a}^2 \sigma^2}=|\mathrm{a}| \cdot \sigma\end{aligned}$

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