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Question: Answered & Verified by Expert
If $y=\tan ^{-1}(\sec x-\tan x)$, then $\frac{d y}{d x}$ is equal to
MathematicsInverse Trigonometric FunctionsCOMEDKCOMEDK 2013
Options:
  • A $2$
  • B $-2$
  • C $\frac{1}{2}$
  • D $-\frac{1}{2}$
Solution:
1042 Upvotes Verified Answer
The correct answer is: $-\frac{1}{2}$
We have,
$y=\tan ^{-1}(\sec x-\tan x)$
$y=\tan ^{-1}\left[\frac{1-\sin x}{\cos x}\right]$
$\begin{aligned} &=\tan ^{-1}\left[\frac{1-\cos \left(\frac{\pi}{2}-x\right)}{\sin \left(\frac{\pi}{2}-x\right)}\right] \\ &=\tan ^{-1}\left[\frac{2 \sin ^{2}\left(\frac{\pi}{4}-\frac{x}{2}\right)}{2 \sin \left(\frac{\pi}{4}-\frac{x}{2}\right) \cos \left(\frac{\pi}{4}-\frac{x}{2}\right)}\right] \\ &=\tan ^{-1}\left\{\tan \left(\frac{\pi}{4}-\frac{x}{2}\right)\right\}=\frac{\pi}{4}-\frac{x}{2} \\ \frac{d y}{d x} &=-\frac{1}{2} \end{aligned}$

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