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Question: Answered & Verified by Expert
\(\int\left(1+\frac{x}{1 !}+\frac{x^2}{2 !}+\ldots \infty\right) d x=\)
MathematicsIndefinite IntegrationAP EAMCETAP EAMCET 2020 (17 Sep Shift 1)
Options:
  • A \(\log (x+1)+c\)
  • B \(\frac{1}{x+1}+c\)
  • C \(e^x+c\)
  • D \(-e^{-x}+c\)
Solution:
1570 Upvotes Verified Answer
The correct answer is: \(e^x+c\)
\(\begin{gathered}
\int\left(1+\frac{x}{1 !}+\frac{x^2}{2 !}+\ldots \ldots\right) d x \\
=\int e^x \cdot d x=\left(e^x+c\right)
\end{gathered}\)

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