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Question: Answered & Verified by Expert
Let $A=\left(\begin{array}{ll}1 & 2 \\ 3 & 4\end{array}\right)$ and $B=\left(\begin{array}{ll}a & 0 \\ 0 & b\end{array}\right), a, b \in N$. Then
MathematicsMatricesJEE MainJEE Main 2006
Options:
  • A
    there cannot exist any B such that AB = BA
  • B
    there exist more than one but finite number of B’s such that AB = BA
  • C
    there exists exactly one B such that AB = BA
  • D
    there exist infinitely many B’s such that AB = BA
Solution:
2017 Upvotes Verified Answer
The correct answer is:
there exist infinitely many B’s such that AB = BA
$A=\left[\begin{array}{ll}1 & 2 \\ 3 & 4\end{array}\right] \quad B=\left[\begin{array}{ll}a & 0 \\ 0 & b\end{array}\right]$
$A B=\left[\begin{array}{ll}a & 2 b \\ 3 a & 4 b\end{array}\right]$
$B A=\left[\begin{array}{ll}a & 0 \\ 0 & b\end{array}\right]\left[\begin{array}{ll}1 & 2 \\ 3 & 4\end{array}\right]=\left[\begin{array}{cc}a & 2 a \\ 3 b & 4 b\end{array}\right]$
$A B=B A$ only when $a=b$

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