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Question: Answered & Verified by Expert
Let $A=\left[\begin{array}{ll}1 & 2 \\ 3 & 4\end{array}\right]$ and $B=\left[\begin{array}{ll}a & 0 \\ 0 & b\end{array}\right]$ where $a, b$ are natural numbers, then which one of the following is correct?
MathematicsMatricesNDANDA 2009 (Phase 1)
Options:
  • A There exist more than one but finite number of $B$ 's such that $A B=B A$
  • B There exists exactly one $\mathrm{B}$ such that $A B=B A$
  • C There exist infinitely many $B$ 's such that $A B=B A$
  • D There cannot exist any $B$ such that $A B=B A$
Solution:
1664 Upvotes Verified Answer
The correct answer is: There exist infinitely many $B$ 's such that $A B=B A$
$A B=\left[\begin{array}{ll}1 & 2 \\ 3 & 4\end{array}\right]\left[\begin{array}{ll}a & 0 \\ 0 & b\end{array}\right]=\left[\begin{array}{cc}a & 2 b \\ 3 a & 4 b\end{array}\right]$
and $B A=\left[\begin{array}{ll}a & 0 \\ 0 & b\end{array}\right]\left[\begin{array}{ll}1 & 2 \\ 3 & 4\end{array}\right]=\left[\begin{array}{cc}a & 2 a \\ 3 b & 4 b\end{array}\right]$
If $A B=B A$
$\Rightarrow\left[\begin{array}{cc}a & 2 b \\ 3 a & 4 b\end{array}\right]=\left[\begin{array}{cc}a & 2 a \\ 3 b & 4 b\end{array}\right] \Rightarrow a=b$
From the above it is clear that there exist infinitely many B's such that $\mathrm{AB}=\mathrm{BA}$.

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