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Let $\mathrm{f}: \mathrm{R} \rightarrow \mathrm{R}$ be defined by $\mathrm{f}(\mathrm{x})=\frac{1}{\mathrm{x}} \forall \mathrm{x} \in \mathrm{R}$. Then $\mathrm{f}$ is
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The correct answer is:
f is not defined
f is not defined
Since, $\frac{1}{x}$ is not defined for $x=0$ $\therefore \mathrm{f}: \mathrm{R} \rightarrow \mathrm{R}$ can not be defined.
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