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Question: Answered & Verified by Expert
Let $\mathrm{f}: \mathrm{R} \rightarrow \mathrm{R}$ be defined by $\mathrm{f}(\mathrm{x})=\frac{1}{\mathrm{x}} \forall \mathrm{x} \in \mathrm{R}$. Then $\mathrm{f}$ is
MathematicsRelations and Functions (Class 11)
Options:
  • A
    one-one
  • B
    onto
  • C
    bijective
  • D
    f is not defined
Solution:
1317 Upvotes Verified Answer
The correct answer is:
f is not defined
Since, $\frac{1}{x}$ is not defined for $x=0$ $\therefore \mathrm{f}: \mathrm{R} \rightarrow \mathrm{R}$ can not be defined.

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