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Question: Answered & Verified by Expert
Let $f: R \rightarrow R$ be defined by $f(x)=x^{2}-\frac{x^{2}}{1+x^{2}}$ for all $x \in R$. Then,
MathematicsFunctionsWBJEEWBJEE 2019
Options:
  • A $f$ is one-one but not onto mapping
  • B $f$ is onto but not one-one mapping
  • C $f$ is both one-one and onto
  • D $f$ is neither one-one nor onto
Solution:
1028 Upvotes Verified Answer
The correct answer is: $f$ is neither one-one nor onto
We have,
$$
\begin{aligned}
f(x) &=x^{2}-\frac{x^{2}}{1+x^{2}} \\
f(-x) &=(-x)^{2}-\frac{(-x)^{2}}{1+(-x)^{2}} \\
&=x^{2}-\frac{x^{2}}{1+x^{2}}=f(x) \\
\therefore f(-x)=f(x) &
\end{aligned}
$$
So, $f(x)$ is many one Again, $f(x)=x^{2}-\frac{x^{2}}{1+x^{2}}$
$$
=\frac{x^{2}+x^{4}-x^{2}}{1+x^{2}}=\frac{x^{4}}{1+x^{2}}
$$
$\therefore$ Range of $f(x)$ will be $[0, \infty)$ But, co-domain of $f(x)=R$
$\therefore$ Range $\neq$ co-domain. So, $f(x)$ is onto.

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