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Question: Answered & Verified by Expert
Let \( f(x)=x-\frac{1}{x} \) then \( f^{\prime}(-1) \) is
MathematicsDifferentiationKCETKCET 2018
Options:
  • A \( 00 \)
  • B \( 12 \)
  • C \( 11 \)
  • D \( -2 \)
Solution:
2694 Upvotes Verified Answer
The correct answer is: \( 12 \)
Given that, \( f(x)=x-\frac{1}{x} \)
So, \( f^{\prime}(x)=1+\frac{1}{x^{2}} \)
\( f^{\prime}(-1)=1+\frac{1}{(-1)^{2}}=1+1=2 \)

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