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Question: Answered & Verified by Expert
Let $R$ be the set of all real numbers and let $f$ be a fucntion $R$ to $R$ such that $f(x)+\left(x+\frac{1}{2}\right) f(1-x)=1$, for all $x \in R .$ Then $2 f(0)+3 f(1)$ is equal to.
MathematicsFunctionsJEE Main
Options:
  • A 2
  • B 0
  • C $-2$
  • D $-4$
Solution:
2837 Upvotes Verified Answer
The correct answer is: $-2$
Given $f(x)+\left(x+\frac{1}{2}\right) f(1-x)=1 \quad ......\text {(1)}$
but $x=0$
$\begin{array}{l}
f(0)+\frac{1}{2} f(1)=1 \\
\Rightarrow 2 f(0)+f(1)=2 \quad ......\text {(2)}\end{array}$
$\begin{array}{l}
\text { put } x=1 \text { in }(1) \\
\Rightarrow f(1)+\frac{3}{2} f(0)=1 \\
\Rightarrow 2 f(1)+3 f(0)=2 \quad ......\text {(3)}
\end{array}$
Solving $(2) \&(3)$ we have
$\begin{array}{l}
F(0)=2 \& f(1)=-2 \\
\therefore 2 f(0)+f(1)=4-6=-2
\end{array}$

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