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If \(f(x)\) is a quadratic in \(x\), then \(\int_0^1 f(x) d x\) is equal to
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Verified Answer
The correct answer is:
\(\frac{1}{6}\left[\mathrm{f}(0)+4 \mathrm{f}\left(\frac{1}{2}\right)+\mathrm{f}(1)\right]\)
If \(f(x)=a x^2+b x+c\),
\(\begin{aligned}
& \int_0^1 f(x) d x=\frac{1}{6}(2 a+3 b+6 c) \\
& f(0)=c, f\left(\frac{1}{2}\right)=\frac{a}{4}+\frac{b}{2}+c, f(1)=a+b+c \\
& \Rightarrow f(0)+4 f\left(\frac{1}{2}\right)+f(1)=2 a+3 b+6 c
\end{aligned}\)
\(\begin{aligned}
& \int_0^1 f(x) d x=\frac{1}{6}(2 a+3 b+6 c) \\
& f(0)=c, f\left(\frac{1}{2}\right)=\frac{a}{4}+\frac{b}{2}+c, f(1)=a+b+c \\
& \Rightarrow f(0)+4 f\left(\frac{1}{2}\right)+f(1)=2 a+3 b+6 c
\end{aligned}\)
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