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Question: Answered & Verified by Expert
If $\mathrm{I}_1=\int_0^{3 \pi} \mathrm{f}\left(\cos ^2 \mathrm{x}\right) \mathrm{dx}$ and $\mathrm{I}_2=\int_0^\pi \mathrm{f}\left(\cos ^2 \mathrm{x}\right) \mathrm{dx}$, then
MathematicsDefinite IntegrationWBJEEWBJEE 2010
Options:
  • A $\mathrm{I}_1=\mathrm{I}_2$
  • B $3 \mathrm{I}_1=\mathrm{I}_2$
  • C $\mathrm{I}_1=3 \mathrm{I}_2$
  • D $\mathrm{I}_1=5 \mathrm{I}_2$
Solution:
1199 Upvotes Verified Answer
The correct answer is: $\mathrm{I}_1=3 \mathrm{I}_2$
Hints : $I_1=3 \int_0^\pi \mathrm{f}\left(\cos ^2 x\right) d x=3 I \quad$ [period is $\pi$ ]

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